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Ajit Kaur bought a 50 kg sack of sugar for Rs. 1750, but as sugar prices fell he had to sell it at Rs. 32 per kg. How much loss did he incur?

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Last updated date: 19th Sep 2024
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Answer
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Hint: We know that if the cost price is greater than the selling price, then there is loss. In this question, the cost price is greater than the selling price, so Ajit Kaur incurred loss. The total loss is equal to total kg of sugar \[\times \] loss per kg. We can find the cost of 1 kg of sugar first. Then, accordingly subtracting it with Rs. 32, we will get the loss per kg. Then, find the loss for 50 kg sugar.

Complete step by step solution:
Here, we are given that Ajit Kaur bought 50 kg sugar for Rs. 1750. So now we will use the unitary method to solve this question.
The unitary method says that first we find the value of a single unit and then the necessary value by multiplying the single unit.
For example, if we have total m things for Rs. n.
Then first we will find the value for one thing that is \[\dfrac{n}{m}\] .
And after that if we have to find the value for any number (let’s say) k then it will be
= \[\dfrac{n}{m}\times k\] .
That means, we can say that
Price for 1 kg of sugar is \[\dfrac{1750}{50}\] Rs.
\[\Rightarrow \] 35 Rs per kg sugar
But now we are given that the price of sugar fell down to Rs 32 per kg.
So the loss of rupees per kg is
35 – 32 = 3 Rs. per kg
So total loss of Ajit Kaur incurred
= total kg sugar which he brought \[\times \] total loss per kg
= 50 kg \[\times \] 3 \[\dfrac{Rs.}{kg}\]
= 150 Rs.
So the total loss he incurred is 150 Rs.

Note: Alternate method:
Ajit Kaur bought a total 50 kg sugar for 1750 Rs.
Cost price = 1750 Rs.
And he sold sugar for 32 Rs per kg
That means total selling price
= 32 \[\dfrac{Rs.}{kg}\] \[\times \] 50 kg
= 1600 Rs.
Loss = cost price – selling price
= 1750 – 1600
= 150 Rs.
So the total loss he incurred is 150 Rs.