Question

Aristotle, the father of Political Science, believed that the State continues to exist for the sake of good life. His belief is right because __________________
(A) The state alone can provide opportunities for the proper development of the individual’s faculties
(B) State has the power to regulate and control
(C) State is what is made by the people
(D) State is the result of a contract

Answer 1

Hint: Aristotle was a Greek philosopher and sage throughout the Classical period in Ancient Greece. Educated by Plato, he was the originator of the Lyceum, the Peripatetic school of philosophy, and the Aristotelian custom.

Complete answer:
Like his educator Plato, Aristotle's viewpoint goals at the collective. Aristotle's ontology places the collective in specifics, things in the world, while for Plato the collective is a disjointedly existing form which authentic things copy. For Aristotle, "form" is still what singularities are based on, but is "instantiated" in a specific material. Plato claimed that all things have a collective form, which could be either a possession or a relation to other things. When we glance at an apple, e.g., we see an apple, and we can also evaluate the form of an apple. In this discrepancy, there is a specific apple and a collective form of an apple. Furthermore, we can place an apple subsequent to a book, so that we can preach both the book and apple as being subsequent to each other. Plato claimed that there are some collective forms that are not a portion of specific things. For example, it is likely that there is no specific good in reality, but "good" is still an appropriate collective form. Aristotle conflicted with Plato on this opinion, claiming that all collectives are instantiated at a certain stage of time and that there are no collectives that are uncommitted to existing things.

Thus, option (A) is correct.

Note: Near the end of his life, Alexander and Aristotle became alienated over Alexander's association with Persia and Persians. A prevalent custom in ancient times alleged Aristotle of playing a part in Alexander's demise, but the only indication of this is an improbable prerogative made some 6 years after the demise.